Believing in the word of Allah the Quran

Believing in the word of Allah the Quran

Allah Almighty accomplished the religion of truth of peace and His choice by blessing the Ummah with the beloved of all Prophets and last Messengers of Allah, Muhammad (SAW), descending upon Him the true and the greatest book of all time, The Holy Quran to let us guide and knowing Islam and learning quran, as narrated: O’ people! No Prophet would be raised after me and no new Ummah (would be formed) after you.

And,

Verily I have left amongst you that which will never lead you astray; the Book of Allah, which if you hold fast you shall never go astray

Read Quran it is the true word of Allah; Muhammad (SAW) is referring about it. Thus the Quran turns out to be an ultimate way of guidance descended upon all mankind till the Day of Judgment.

And also in Surah e Baqara, Allah Himself glorifies the Holy Quran

Al-Baqara [2:2] this is the book; in it is guidance sure, without doubt, to those who fear Allah.

After this it leaves no room for argument to the guided ones or doubt in hearts and souls of true believers that the book that was reviled on prophet Muhammad (SAW) the holy Quran is the source of guidance for whom who are searching for guidance of Allah and his blessings.

Those of us who believe in greatness of Quran and try to understand and follow the true teachings of God are definitely differentiated from the ones who don’t do so, as narrated in this verse:

Al-Baqara [2:78] and there are among them illiterates, who know not the book, but (see therein their own) desires, and they do nothing but conjecture.

What makes Muslims believe that the Quran

Muslims believe that Prophet Muhammad is not the author of the Quran. God is its Author. The following points bear the fact:

First of all, the Quran itself, at a number of places and in different ways, says that it is from God. One of the claims runs thus: “This is indeed a Quran most honourable, a Book well-guarded…a Revelation from the Lord of the Worlds.” (Quran 56:77-80)

(Here, one ought to know the features of the Quran to understand the claim better. For instance, if the Quran had consisted of a number of books, and each book was made up of a number of chapters, then each of the books had to claim that it was from God in order to render the WHOLE volume as coming from God. But, this is fortunately not so with the Quran. The Quran is just ONE Book made up of 114 chapters. So, if the Quran claims, in any of its chapters, that the Book is from God, then the WHOLE Quran is from God. Yet, the Quran does not make the divine claim only once, but several times in different phrases and in different chapters.)

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He wants to go back to his country but there is war there; is his wife obliged to obey him?

 

my dad went back to his country because he said he dont want to stay in kuffar country،he wants the family to come as well. but my mum dont want to go because she is saying my children have to finish their education and they are about to start university and she dont want to ruin for them. My question is then ist a sin for my mum to not obey her husband and do what he wants her to do? will she be punished for it? what do you think i shoul do، because my mum really dont want to go and her mum and sister is saying dont go there because their is war and so on.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly: 

Staying in a kaafir country is not permissible unless certain
conditions are met, the most important of which is that the person be
religiously committed and thus protected against whims and desires; he
should also have sufficient knowledge and insight that will protect him
against specious arguments; he should be able to practice his religion
openly; and he and his family should be safe. For more details please see
the answer to question no. 13363
and 27211. 

Secondly: 

The wife is obliged to obey her husband and move with him
wherever he moves, so long as she did not stipulate that her husband should
not take her out of her homeland or make her travel to a specific country,
or so long as moving with him will not cause her any obvious and
considerable harm, such as if he wants to move to a country where there is
war or it is thought most likely that she will encounter harm such as
imprisonment and the like. 

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: He may
travel with her, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon
him) used to travel with his wives, unless it is a kind of travel in which
there is fear (of harm), in which case she does not have to do that. 

End quote from al-Mughni (7/223) 

And it says in Kashshaaf al-Qinaa‘ (5/187): The
husband may travel with his wife, because the Prophet (blessings and peace
of Allah be upon him) and his Companions used to travel with their wives,
unless the travel involves fear or there is danger on the road or in the
land to which he wants to travel. In that case he does not have the right to
take her with him without her permission, because of the hadeeth, “There
should be neither harm nor reciprocating harm.” Or if she stipulated that
she should stay in her own land, in which case she is entitled to that
condition, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him)
said: “The most deserving of conditions to be fulfilled are those by means
of which intimacy became permissible to you.” End quote. 

She does not have the right to refuse to accompany her
husband because of the children’s education, because education may be
acquired in various places and through various means such as distance
learning and so on. So it is not permissible for her to disobey her husband
for the sake of her children. 

Thirdly: 

You have to obey your father and travel with him if he wants
that, so long as your travelling to his country will not pose a danger to
you. 

It should be obvious to you that the father has rights and a
high status, and Allah has commanded us to honour our parents; He has
mentioned that alongside obedience to Him and affirmation of His Oneness
(Tawheed). Claiming that the father is not thinking of his children’s best
interests is mistaken thinking in most cases, because of the natural
compassion that the father has for his children, but what the father thinks
is in the children’s best religious or worldly interests may make him
overlook this compassion. Allah has commanded the father to protect his
children and guard them against that which may lead to doom and loss, as He
says (interpretation of the meaning):

“O you who believe! Ward off yourselves and your families
against a Fire (Hell) whose fuel is men and stones, over which are
(appointed) angels stern (and) severe, who disobey not, (from executing) the
Commands they receive from Allaah, but do that which they are commanded”

[al-Tahreem 66:6] 

And it was narrated from Ibn ‘Umar (may Allah be pleased with
him) that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said:

“Each of you is a shepherd and each of you is responsible for
his flock. The ruler of the people is a shepherd and is responsible for his
flock. A man is the shepherd of his household and is responsible for his
flock. A woman is the shepherd of her husband’s house and children and is
responsible for her flock. The slave is the shepherd of his master’s wealth
and is responsible for it. Each of you is a shepherd and each of you is
responsible for his flock.”

Narrated by al-Bukhaari (7138) and Muslim (1829). 

And al-Bukhaari (7151) and Muslim (142) narrated that Ma‘qil
ibn Yasaar al-Muzani (may Allah be pleased with him) said:

I heard the Messenger of Allaah (blessings and peace of Allah
be upon him) say: “There is no person whom Allaah puts in charge of others,
and when he dies he is insincere to his subjects, but Allaah will forbid
Paradise to him.” 

So it is no surprise that a father would flee with his
children from the land of kufr, fearing corruption and deviance for them,
and that he would prefer soundness of religious commitment to worldly
interests. If his move to his homeland is safe, then all the members of his
family are obliged to obey him and accompany him. 

And Allah knows best.

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If a man is absent on the night of one of his wives with or without an excuse, he has to come back and make up that night

 

My husband travelled before the end of his three nights in my house (as we both agreed). Does he have to come back as soon as he returns to complete the remaining two nights, or can he choose where he wants to stay for the next three?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If the husband divides his time between his wives, spending
one night or two nights or three nights with each in turn, then it is the
right of each of his wives that he should stay overnight with her on the
nights that are allocated to her, because she is entitled to that. If
circumstances dictate that he should be absent on the night of one of his
wives completely or for a long time, such as if he is imprisoned or is
travelling or is getting married, then the right of the wife whose turn it
was is not waived; rather when he comes out of prison or returns from his
travel or the time allocated to the new wife ends, he has to go back to
the wife whose turn it was and stay overnight with her, or complete what
is left of her night. This is what is required to be just and fair. 

Al-Shaafa‘i (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If he
allocated time to a wife then he went away then he returned, he should start
dividing his time with the one whose turn comes next. 

Similarly, if he is not travelling but he is distracted from
staying overnight with her, he should resume dividing his time as if he had
returned from being away, so he should start with the one whose turn it
was. 

And he said: 

If he was with her for part of the night, then he went away
then he came back, he should start by making up to her what is left of the
night, then he should go to the one whose turn comes next at the end of the
night, so that he is being fair to them with regard to dividing his time. 

Al-Umm (5/281). 

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: 

If he leaves one of his wives during her time, if that is
during the day or at the beginning or end of the night, when it is customary
to leave the home and go out to pray, that is permissible, because the
Muslims go out to pray ‘Isha’ and Fajr before dawn breaks, and with regard
to the day, it is the time when people go out and about to earn a living. 

But if he goes out at some other time and comes back quickly,
he does not have to make it up for her, because there is no benefit in
making that up. But if he stays out for a long time, he should make it up to
her, whether his staying out was for an excuse such as work or being
detained, or there was no excuse, because her rights were denied by his
being away from her. And if he wants to make up for that by staying away
from the other wife for as long as he stayed away from this one, that is
permissible, because equal treatment is attained by doing that, and because
it is permissible for him to stay away for a full night if he does the same
to each of his wives; so by analogy it is also acceptable with regard to
part of the night. 

Al-Mughni, 8/145 

Another issue with regard to the rights of the wife over the
husband, which supports what is mentioned above, is that if the husband
wants to travel and draws lots between his wives, and one wife’s name is
drawn, then she still has the right to her night after he comes back from
his journey, and the fact that he took her with him on his journey does not
mean that her right to her night or nights is waived. 

Shaykh al-Khateeb al-Sharbeeni al-Shaafa‘i (may Allah have
mercy on him) said: 

Al-Bulqayni said: If the name of the one whose turn it is is
drawn, her turn is not included in the period of travel; rather, when he
returns, he should still give her her right to a share of his time. In the
text of al-Umm there is that which confirms this. 

Mughni al-Muhtaaj, 3/258 

Shaykh Mansoor al-Bahooti al-Hanbali (may Allah have mercy on
him) said: 

The husband should still allocate the rightful share of his
time to the one he takes with him after choosing her by drawing lots, when
he returns from his journey and he should not regard the time spent
travelling as part of her share of his time, because of the hadeeth of
‘Aa’ishah quoted above, as she did not mention making up the time, and
because the one who travelled with him was the only one to undergo the
hardships of travel. 

Kashshaaf al-Qinaa‘, 5/201 

To sum up: 

When your husband comes back from his trip, he has to make up
the rest of your three nights, and thus he will attain the justice that
Allah has required of him. He does not have to start dividing his time anew,
because he still owes you some time that he has to make up for you. 

And Allah knows best.

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Ruling on taking contraceptive pills without the husband’s permission

 

I live with a very violent and tempremental husband.I have four children from him and unfortunately he does on many occassions physically and verbally abuse us. I am now at the age of 40 and with all my children have suffered with poor health during my pregnancies as well as having been physically beaten. My husband is always threatening me with divorce at every small disagreement as well as insisting that i have another child. Is it permissible for me to use contraception without my husbands consent in such a case where my dr has also advised me against any further pregnacy due to my health and also in light of the violence that my children and i live with (he has on 2 occassions threatened me with a knife). My husband refuses to acknowledge my medical health even though i was on drip in hosital every two days during my last pregnancy and was also using a walking stick due to problems with my hip bones. Please advise.

Praise be to Allaah.

It should be noted that the basic principle is that each
spouse has the right to have children, so the husband does not have the
right to engage in coitus interruptus (‘azl) without his wife’s
permission, and the wife does not have the right to use any means of
contraception without his permission. See: al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah,
3/156. 

Ibn Nujaym al-Hanafi said: 

The woman’s blocking her womb, as women do to prevent having
children, is haraam without the permission of the husband, by analogy with
the ruling on his engaging in coitus interruptus (‘azl) without her
permission.

End quote from al-Bahr al-Raa’iq, 3/215. 

Al-Bahooti al-Hanbali said:

Al-Qaadi said: It is not permissible except with the
permission of the husband, because he has the right to have children.

End quote from Kashshaaf al-Qinaa‘, 2/96. 

But if there is an obvious reason for the wife not to have
children, such as if becoming pregnant will obviously cause her harm
according to the testimony of trustworthy doctors, then in this case the
husband’s right for her to ask his permission is waived, because the
interest of preserving the woman’s health takes precedence over the interest
of the husband having children. 

The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said:
“There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.” Narrated by Ibn
Maajah, 2340; classed as hasan by al-Nawawi in al-Adhkaar, p. 502 

In fact the scholars stated that it is permissible for a
pregnant woman to abort the pregnancy so long as it is in the early stages,
if continuing the pregnancy will result in harm to her health. See the
answer to question no. 82851. 

In the Fataawa of Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on
him) it says: I am a married woman and my husband refuses to let me take
birth control pills because he does not understand the exhaustion that I
feel and the harm that pregnancy could cause me. I took birth control pills
without my husband’s knowledge; is there anything wrong with that? 

The Shaykh replied: If you can avoid doing that, that will be
more on the safe side. But if the harm and hardship is severe, there is
nothing wrong with it; otherwise not taking pills is more on the safe side.
Obedience to the husband is obligatory unless the harm would be great and
too difficult for you, because Allah, may He be glorified, says
(interpretation of the meaning):

“So keep your duty to Allaah and fear Him as much as you
can”

[al-Taghaabun 64:16] 

End quote from Majmoo‘ Fataawa Ibn Baaz, 21/183 

It is better for you to try to work the matter out with your
husband and reach an agreement between yourselves; the man has to pay
attention to his wife’s situation and state of health. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If
the husband sees that his wife will be affected by becoming pregnant, then
he should give her permission to use contraception or he himself should use
contraception, out of kindness to her, until she becomes strong enough for
that.

End quote from Fataawa Noor ‘ala al-Darb. 

With regard to the bad treatment of the husband’s part and
his harsh attitude, that is not an excuse not to have children, because
Allah may make this child a compensation and put a great deal of good in
him, as He says (interpretation of the meaning) “And
who brings out the living from the dead and brings out the dead from the
living” [Yoonus 10:31]. 

And Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“If you dislike them, it may be
that you dislike a thing and Allâh brings through it a great deal of good”

[al-Nisa’ 4:19]. 

And Allah knows best.

 

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Her husband refuses to let her help him with household expenses

 

Recently I could find a good way to earn experience at working as I dont know what could happen to me if my husband died while I dont have a complete education and I never worked before.

Obviously, I can earn money with that work, which is revising translations. I work at home and I don’t have a fixed schedule, I can have work at any time but I can do it while my husband is not present.

My question is: Can my husband control the way I spend my money? He doesn’t let me buy anything for the house with my own money, he doesn’t even let me buy something I want to buy, he says he can buy it for me another time and he doesn’t like me to spend any of my money, although it could make things easier for him and for me. I’m living with my parents-in-law for more than a year now and we are joining money to rent a house soon, inshaAllah. But he doesn’t let me help him to join money to buy the things for the house like fridge, washing machine, etc.

I know it’s his responsibility to take care of these things, but can’t I help? What am I supposed to do with the money I may earn except giving in charity? I could do a lot of things and take a lot of weight from my husband’s shoulders if I helped him with my income.

Is it permissible if I put some of my money with the savings we have without his knowledge as sadaqah?

Please advise me.

Praise be to Allaah.

We congratulate you for having this virtuous husband who is a
man of good character and high integrity. There are very few men like him
who refrain from taking their wives’ wealth and insist on keeping away from
it and not touching it so that they will not undermine their wives’ rights
or fall into dubious matters.  This is part of the kind and honourable
treatment that Allah enjoins, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And live with them honourably”

[al-Nisa’ 4:19]. 

It was narrated from Hakeem ibn Mu‘aawiyah al-Qushayri that
his father said:

I said: O Messenger of Allah, what are the rights of the wife
of one of us over him? He said, “That you feed her when you feed yourself
and clothe her when you clothe yourself or when you earn some income, that
you do not hit her in the face, you do not say ‘May Allaah make your face
ugly’ and you do not forsake her, except in the house.” 

Narrated by Abu Dawood in al-Sunan, 2142 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said: 

What this means is: do not buy clothes or food only for
yourself and not for her; rather she is your partner and you have to spend
on her as you spend on yourself.

End quote from Sharh Riyaadh al-Saaliheen, 3/131. 

Your husband is obeying the command of the Messenger of Allah
(blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) by spending fully on your
maintenance; in fact he is going over and above that by spending on extras
from his own money and refusing any financial help on your part. 

Hence we advise you to respond to this kindness with kindness
and do not give up trying to help financially, even if that is by depositing
some of your money in his account without him realising, because it is not
essential for him to know about that. Or you could buy things that your
husband needs or that the house needs before he realises it, or buy him a
valuable gift, especially something that is important to him, or keep the
money to give to him at the time of need, and other kinds of beneficial
spending. 

Then whatever is left over of your money, after you have
helped him in whatever way you can and put whatever you can give in your
joint account and given in charity, you can save it in your own personal
account, because perhaps you will need it for both of you, or your children
may benefit from it. 

And Allah knows best.

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Does the husband have the right to dispose of his wife’s money?

 

I have this close friend whose husband recently got married to a 2nd lady,her co-wife got a child from previous relation,my friend got 2 child from her husband,she gets benifit from government and she spends it on her living costs.her co-wife does the same.now her husband is demanding her benifite transfared on his name because he belives it is not islamic for her to get money from the government strait she should be getting it throw him,but he is not asking for his 2nd wife’s benifit to be transfared to his name as a excuse he is saying that she was getting that benifit from before she got into the marriage on this ground he can’t ask her.what is correct correct according to islam?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The basic principle concerning any wealth the wife owns is
that it belongs to her and not to her husband, whether this wealth came into
her possession by means of trade or business, or through inheritance, or as
part of her mahr (dowry) or from the state. The husband does not have a
share in any of that; rather it is her property and none of it is
permissible for him unless she gives it to him willingly. If it were the
case that the husband owned his wife’s wealth, then his wife’s entire estate
when she died would go to the husband and no one else would have a share in
it, and that does not happen according to the laws of Allah. 

Based on that, the money that comes to this wife as
assistance for her from the state belongs exclusively to her and it is not
permissible for her husband to take control of it. What he is saying about
Islam not allowing the wife to take anything from the government directly
has no basis in sharee‘ah; men and women are the same in that regard. 

It is not permissible for the husband to take anything from
his wife’s wealth except what she allows. 

Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the
meaning):

“O you who believe! Eat not up your property among
yourselves unjustly except it be a trade amongst you, by mutual consent”

[an-Nisa’ 4:29]

“And give to the women (whom you marry) their Mahr
(obligatory bridal money given by the husband to his wife at the time of
marriage) with a good heart, but if they, of their own good pleasure, remit
any part of it to you, take it, and enjoy it without fear of any harm (as
Allah has made it lawful).”

[an-Nisa’ 4:4]. 

In the answer to question no. 3054 we have discussed the
evidence from the Qur’aan and Sunnah and scholarly consensus that proves
that the husband is obliged to spend on his wife according to his means; he
does not have the right to force her to spend on her own maintenance even if
she is rich, unless she agrees to that. 

For more information on the issue of the wife’s salary,
please see the answer to question no.
126316 

And Allah knows best.

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Is it permissible to live with a husband who takes out a riba-based loan?

 

Is it sinful for a wife to live with a husband who takes out loan to start a business? Can this be a ground for divorce? I would be grateful if you could advice me in how to convience him that it is wrong what he is doing.

Praise be to Allaah.
 

 

If the loan that he has asked for is halaal, i.e. it is not
based on riba, and he intends to pay it back, then there is nothing wrong
with this, and this is not regarded as a sinful loan. 

But if this loan is a riba-based loan, then it is haraam and
it is not permissible for him to take it or to start a business with this
haraam money. 

“And whosoever fears Allaah and keeps his duty to Him, He
will make a way for him to get out (from every difficulty).

 And He will provide him from (sources) he never could
imagine”

[al-Talaaq 65:2-3] 

and :

“Whoever gives up something for the sake of Allaah, Allaah
will compensate him with something better than that.” 

If you want to advise him, then in Question no.
9054 you will
find some comments on this topic which you can give him so that he might
benefit from that, and avoid that which is haraam.  

With regard to his consuming riba, this may be grounds for
you to ask him for a divorce (talaaq) or to ask for khula’, but you do not
have to do that, rather it is o.k. for you to stay with him and live with
him whilst continuing to advise him to do that which is better, especially
if there is the hope that he will mend his ways. 

With regard to eating from his money, if he has a permissible
source of income other than this, then there is no sin on you or on you
children if you eat from this money. But if all his earnings are haraam and
you cannot find any other source of maintenance, and you have no other
halaal source of income, then it is permissible for you to take just what
you need, and no more, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“So keep your duty to Allaah and fear Him as much as you
can”

[al-Taghaabun 64:16] 

So in this case if you take money, you are taking what he is
obliged to spend on you. But you should still continue to advise him and
tell him to refrain from taking haraam loans, and to look for a way that is
acceptable according to sharee’ah, so that he can do work and earn his
provision thereby. 

And Allaah is the Source of strength.

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A number of questions about divorce

 

I have three urgent and, I believe,very imporatant questions about Divorce (Talaq).

1. Is what is known in the west as SEPARATION permitted in Islam? A muslim husband and wife with children living in the west are seriously considering divorce. Somebody suggested trying Separation first. The husband would move out to a place nearby but since they are still married there would be no problem comming in the house at any time. He would still continue to support the family in every respect.

2. For consummated marriage and with first Talaq, when does Eddah end? Is it the end of the third period (bleeding) or the beginning of the fourth one?

3. What is permitted during Eddah that would not constitute end of Talaq? I know that sexual intercourse is not, but is kissing, touching and hugging ok?

Praise be to Allaah.
 

 

With regard to the first question, the answer depends on the
circumstances. If what is intended by this action is to reduce the level of
tension in the relationship, then they will come back together, or as a
trial separation to see what effect that will have on them and their
children so that it will help them to take a decision, and they both agree
to this temporary separation, then there is nothing wrong with that. 

If this is a decision that they have both taken, and have
agreed to separate from one another without divorcing, then it should be
said that if the woman foregoes the rights that she will lose through this
separation, and he also foregoes his rights over her, and they think that
this is in their best interests and those of their children, and the place
where the woman and her children will stay is a safe place where they will
not suffer neglect, then that is permissible, subject to these conditions.
But if she wants intimacy and he does not want to do that, or there is the
fear that she may do something wrong whilst she is still married to him, and
the like, then he should divorce her, but still continue to spend on his
children. And Allaah knows best. 

With regard to the second question: the ‘iddah of a divorced
woman who has periods, with whom the marriage has been consummated and who
is not pregnant, is a matter concerning which classical and contemporary
scholars have differed. The view which is regarded as most correct by the
majority of contemporary scholars, such as Shaykh Ibn Baaz and Ibn
‘Uthaymeen, and others, is that the ‘iddah ends when three menstrual periods
have passed, and as soon as the third period ends, the ‘iddah ends. This is
the view of many of the major Sahaabah such as ‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab, ‘Ali
ibn Abi Taalib and Ibn Mas’ood, and it was narrated by Ibn al-Qayyim from
Abu Bakr, Abu Moosa and others (may Allaah be pleased with them all). (See
Fataawa Islamiyyah, 3/310; Fataawa al-Talaaq by Shaykh
Ibn Baaz, 193; Jaami’ Ahkaam al-Nisa’, 4/243).

With regard to the third question: “The women whose divorce is revocable
(i.e., first or second talaaq) may uncover in front of her husband and adorn
herself and wear make-up and perfume. She may speak to him and he may speak
to her; she may sit with him and do anything with him apart from intercourse
and the things that lead to it; that may only happen when he takes her back.
(Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, Fataawa Islamiyyah, 3/310) 

If he kisses and embraces
his wife with the intention of taking her back, then that taking back is
valid, with no difference of opinion among the scholars. But if he does not
intend to take her back, then some scholars say that it is permissible on
the grounds that she is his wife, but that it does not mean that he has
taken her back; other scholars say that embracing and kissing etc. are
precursors to intercourse, so the one who does them is sinning if he does
not intend to take her back. To be on the safe side, he should not do that
until after he has clearly stated that he is taking her back, such as saying
to his wife, “I am taking you back,” and two Muslim witnesses bear witness
to his taking her back by him saying in front of them, “I ask you to bear
witness that I am taking my wife So and so back,” and the like. Then he may
do whatever he likes of permissible things. And Allaah knows best. 

(See Subul al-Salaam, 2/267).

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He wants to help a divorced woman

 

What about young women who were forced by
their parents to marry someone, without their will and are now divorced !
I know a person which I want to marry probably, she has to fight with
negative thoughts that she is only half a woman and that she is a woman of second class
after she divorced by her husband.Her family treatens her like a slave and she can’t trust
no men, after all it was the failure of her parents as she never wanted this marriage. I
want to help her and I hope, when Allah gives me the help and the strength, to marry her.I
do not know what to do because she is blocking and I hope that you can help me in helping
her to get rid of this negative thoughts.I told her that I have no problem with the past
situation but she means that my parents would have a problem with this. Are my parents
allowed to forbid me to marry a person who was already married, when she is pure,
religious and full of chasity?
I know that I need their will when I want to marry a person, but the Quran
doesn’t teach about such a situation.
How can I help her, I would do anything to give her the strength to get
over this. Please help me !

Praise be to Allaah.

Undoubtedly the best is to marry a woman whom your
parents approve of. If you want to help this woman by marrying her, then try to convince
your parents, and you will be rewarded in sha Allaah. If they are not convinced, then look
for a Muslim brother who can marry her and take care of her.

With regard to divorced women, if a divorced woman is religious and
well-mannered, then she is of high standing and her divorce has no effect on her worth and
does not make her of any less value before Allaah. She has to remain steadfast and not let
these groundless ideas affect her. We would also like to draw your attention to the fact
that it is not permissible to form a relationship with a non-mahram woman and call her or
contact her for no reason, because of the temptation that this may pose to her or to you.
We ask Allaah to give you and her strength.

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Divorce uttered in anger

 

I would like to ask you about an incident happened 4 days ago to my muslim brother. He said to his wife that, he is giving her three talak at once and sweared after that. But after couple of hours he regret for saying that, and also claiming he was angry at the moment he was talking to his wife. So sheikh my brother wants to know if is he allowed to go back to his wife because it is its first time to say that or is not allowed? according to islamic sheria. I would like some qoutations on your decision because I heard different views from people but with no evidence from the sharia.

Praise be to Allaah.
 

 

Anger is of three types:

 1 – when anger is so intense that are person is no longer
aware of what he is doing or saying, and becomes like one who is insane or
mad. In this case the talaaq (divorce) does not count, according to all the
scholars, because he is like one who is insane and mad, who has lost all
power of reason.

 2 – when his anger is intense but he understands what he is
saying and doing, but his anger is intense and he cannot control himself
because the argument trading of insults or fighting has gone on too long, so
his anger may be intense because of that. In this case there is a difference
of opinion among the scholars, but the most correct view is that divorce
does not count in this case either, because the Prophet (peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no divorce and no freeing
of slaves when it is done by force or in a state of intense anger.”
(Narrated by Ibn Maajah, 2046; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in al-Irwa’,
2047)

 3 – mild anger, which is what happens when the husband is
upset with his wife, or he is disappointed about something that his wife has
done, but it is not so intense that it makes him lose his power of reasoning
or self-control. Rather it is the ordinary kind of anger and is mild. In
this case the divorce is valid according to the all the scholars.

 This is the correct answer regarding divorce uttered in
anger, as was stated by Ibn Taymiyah and Ibn al-Qayyim, may Allaah have
mercy on them.

 And Allaah knows best. May Allaah send blessings and peace
upon our Prophet Muhammad.

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